On 9 November 2011 23:11, Guido van Rossum <guido at python.org> wrote: > On Wed, Nov 9, 2011 at 2:13 PM, Greg Ewing <greg.ewing at canterbury.ac.nz> wrote: >> In my current grammar, it's a syntax error on its own, >> but 'f(yield from x, y)' parses as 'f((yield from x), y)', >> which seems like a reasonable interpretation to me. > > Once you realize that "yield from x, y" has no meaning, sure. But > without thinking deeper about that I can't prove that we'll never find > a meaning for it. We had a similar limitation for "with a, b:" -- > initially it was illegal, eventually we gave it a meaning. Without the context of this thread, my immediate thought would be that yield from x, y is some sort of chaining construct. But I have no vested interest in arguing for this, it's just for information. Paul
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