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Sun Mar 11 22:08:52 CET 2007 · https://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-dev/2007-March/071858.html

On 3/10/07, Jon Ribbens <jon+python-dev at unequivocal.co.uk> wrote:
> I see you snipped without response my request to back up your claim
> that "assuming that a date() is a datetime() with a time of midnight
> will clearly break that logic".
>
> Am I to assume you cannot back it up?

I was trying to minimize the extent of this already too long thread,
assuming you could go do the reading I referred you to if you were
really interested in the answer.  I still encourage you to read the
reference, but for your sake, here's a brief example of temporal logic
that would break::

    We know that:
    date(2006, 1, 1) *Includes* datetime(2006, 1, 1, 0, 0, 1)

    And under your definition
    date(2006, 1, 1) *Is Simultaneous With* datetime(2006, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0)

    But that's a contradiction because
    datetime(2006, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0) *Does Not Include* datetime(2006, 1,
1, 0, 0, 1)

Hope that helps,

STeVe
-- 
I'm not *in*-sane. Indeed, I am so far *out* of sane that you appear a
tiny blip on the distant coast of sanity.
        --- Bucky Katt, Get Fuzzy

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[Python-Dev] datetime module enhancements