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[Python-Dev] yeah! for Jeremy and Greg

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> *cool*.
> 
> So does this completely obviate the need for "apply", then?
> 
>     apply(x, y, z)  <==>  x(*y, **z)

I think so (except for backwards compatibility).  The 1.6 docs for
apply should point this out!

--Guido van Rossum (home page: http://www.python.org/~guido/)

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